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Sample Test
Bahauddin Zakariya
University, Multan
(Main Campus and
Sub-Campuses D. G. Khan & Sahiwal)
Programs:
BBA(Hons) - Morning/Evening,
BBA-IT(Hons)
BS (Commerce),
B.Sc. (Accounting & Finance)
BS (CS), BS (IT),
BS (TS)
MBA
(Morning/Evening), MBA (IT), MBA (Banking & Finance)
M.Sc. (Accounting
& Finance), M.Com, MCS, MIT & M.Sc (TS)
General Instructions:
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You will be required to
write your name, father’s name, date of birth on the top of your answer sheet
and rough work sheet, which will be provided to you by the instructor.
-
You will give your
undivided attention to the instructor when instructions are being given.
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The test is divided into 6
sections. Each section is composed of many short items. You will be given
separate instructions for each section.
-
In order to assure a fair
chance to every candidate and to conduct the test efficiently, we look forward
your cooperation in the form of carefully following the instructions given
here and by the instructor during the test.
-
The instructor will tell
you when to start work on any part of the test and when to stop. It is of
utmost importance that you work only on that section on which the test is in
progress.
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In the interest of
fairness, we insist that no one may continue work even for a second after the
instructor has asked that the work be stopped.
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During the test, do not
talk, whisper, or turn your eyes or head away from your own papers. Any
evidence of cheating or non-compliance of instructions will disqualify you
from the test and your name will be removed from the list of candidates for
admission.
-
In case you write more than
one answer for the one item your answer will be treated as wrong.
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A blank sheet will be
provided with the answer sheet for rough work. You may detach the sheet for
your convenience by ensure that the rough work sheet is returned with the
answer sheet.
-
There will be negative
marking in all parts of the test. For each wrong answer 1/4 points will be
deducted.
-
You will not write anything
anywhere on the test booklet. All answers must be given on the answer sheet.
Structure of the Test
for All Programs
Quantitative Reasoning 40 Questions
Time Allowed: 50 Minutes
Section
1: Problem Solving 25 Questions
Section
2: Data Sufficiency 15 Questions
Section
3: Logical Reasoning 20 Questions
Time Allowed: 30 Minutes
Verbal 40
Questions Time Allowed: 40 Minutes
Section
4: Reading Comprehension 10 Questions
Section
5: Vocabulary 15 Questions
Section
6: Sentence Correction 15 Questions
Total Questions = 100
Total Time Allowed = 120 Minutes
Quantitative
Resolving 40 Questions Time Allowed: 50
Minutes
Section 1: Problem Solving 25 Questions
What They Measure:
Math problems are designed to
test your skills at “quantitative reasoning”, which is your ability to use
knowledge of specific math facts, formulas, techniques, and methods to solve
problems. Basic information about the procedures of math is needed, but the
questions focus more on the underlying concepts than on the procedures
themselves.
The math areas tested on the
test are those studied by virtually every high school student.
Directions:
Each of the following
questions has five answer choices. For each of these questions, select the best
of the answer choices given.
Sample Questions:
1. A three digit
number has 8 as its last digit. The first digit is thrice the second digit, and
the difference between the last two digits is 5. The number is
A.
893 B. 839 C. 938 D. 358
E. 398
2.
Peter takes up
an assignment that lasts 7 days. He is paid $25 more per day than the earlier
day, during the tenure of the task. Further, it is also known that the sum of
the wages earned for the first four days is exactly half of the sum of the wages
for the 7 days. How much did he earn on the fourth day?
A. 125 B.
225 C. 175 D. 300 E. 400
3. 15 years ago, dad
was twice his sons present age. Today, his age is three times his son’s age.
What is dad’s age?
A. 25 B.
40 C. 30 D. 15 E. 60
4. If a circle has
the diameter of 8, what is the circumference?
A. 6.28 B.
12.56 C. 25.13 D. 50.24 E. 100.48
5. Of the following,
which is greater than ½?
A. 2/5 B.
4/7 C. 4/9 D. 5/11 E. 6/13
Section 2: Data Sufficiency: 15 Questions
Directions:
Each of the following data
sufficiency problems consists of a question and two statements, labeled (1) and
(2), in which certain data are given. You have to decide whether the data given
in the statements are sufficient for answering the question. Using the data
given in the statements plus your knowledge of mathematics and everyday facts
(such as the number of days in July or the meaning of counterclockwise), you are
to blacken space.
A.
If statement
(1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the
question asked.
B.
If statement
(2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the
question asked.
C.
If BOTH
statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient answer the question asked, but
NETHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
D.
If EACH
statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
E.
If statements
(1) and (2) TOGETEHR are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and
additional data specific to the problem are needed.
Note: A figure in a data
sufficiency problem will conform to the information given in the question, but
will not necessarily conform to the additional information given in statements
(1) and (2). All numbers used are real numbers.
Sample Questions:
1. Is the
quadrilateral ABCD a parallelogram?
A)
Sides AB and BC
are equal in length
B)
Sides BC, CD
and AD are equal in length
2. $50000 are
distributed among P, Q and R. Who got the least amount?
A)
P received
one-fourth the amount that Q and R received together
B)
R received what
P and Q received together
3. Did Company P
report a larger increase in monetary losses as compared to company Q?
A)
Company P
reported an increased in losses of 4.5%
B)
Company Q
reported an increase in losses of 7%
4. How much did a
family spend on their Alaskan vacation?
A)
There were 4
members in the family
B)
Each family
member spent $1799
Section 3: Logical Reasoning 20
Questions Time Allowed: 30 Minutes
What They Measure:
In logical reasoning
questions the emphasis is placed on your ability to understand and analyze the
logic behind an argument. You will be given a short passage to read, which may
resemble and excerpt from a magazine article, a book, a newspaper editorial, an
advertisement, or even a snippet of conversation. In every case, the passage
presents an argument – that is, an attempt to persuade the reader of the truth
of some statement. You’ll then be asked to answer an question that focuses in
one way or another on the strength or weakness of the argument.
You are not expected to bring
any special background knowledge to logical reasoning question. The passages
contain all the information necessary to answer the questions: so even if a
passage deals with the topic you know absolutely nothing about (the second law
of thermodynamics, say, or copyright laws in Oregon), don’t be concerned –
you’ll be told everything you need to know.
Directions:
Each question or group of
questions is based on a passage or set of conditions. In answering some of the
questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. For each question, select
the best answer choice given.
Sample Questions:
1. Rachel hates
getting wet in the rain. As she stepped out today, she noticed that it was not
raining. All the same, she decided to open her umbrella.
Based on what
premise did Rachel open the umbrella
A)
It seems like
it is about to rain any moment.
B)
It might not
rain right away, but why not be really sure and open the umbrella in any case.
C)
Since it is not
raining, it is likely that it will get too hot due to the sunshine.
D)
The umbrella
has not been opened since long time, so why not open it and check whether it
works?
E)
All of these.
2. Enrollment in
graduate and professional programs tends to be high in a strong economy and much
lower during recessions. The perceived likelihood of future job availability,
therefore, affects people’s willingness to pass up immediate earning potential
in order to invest in career-related training.
The argument
above assumes that:
A)
the perceived
likelihood of job availability has decreased in recent years.
B)
All those who
avoid graduate and professional school during an economic slump do so because of
the perceived lack of further jobs.
C)
Perceptions of
the likelihood of job availability are related to the state of the economy.
D)
Those who
enroll in graduate and professional schools during a strong economy help
increase the economy’s strength.
E)
Graduate and
professional programs admit fewer students during recessions.
3. One of the truisms
of the advertising industry is that it is rarely necessary to say something of
substance in an advertisement in order to boost sales. Instead, one only needs
to attract the potential customer’s attention; memory does the rest, for it is
more important for sales that people know of a product than that they know
something about it.
Which of the
following is assumed by the argument?
A)
People can remember a product
without having much information about it.
B)
Advertisement, in their own
way, function to improve people’s memories.
C)
Attracting a potential
customer’s attention is a simple matter.
D)
The advertising industry
knows little of substance about the products it promotes.
E)
Advertisements seldom tell
the truth about a product.
4. A credit card
company out sources its call center operations to another country. In doing so,
the cost of running the call center operations drop to half the earlier cost.
What inference
can you draw from this information.
A)
the average
wages of employees in the other country are much lower.
B)
The other
country has poor quality and so it manages to offer the services at half the
cost.
C)
The government
of the other country subsidizes setting up of call centers and provides tax
breaks.
D)
The customers
of the credit card company make fewer calls to the call center as they do not
want to talk to an operator in another country. Hence the costs are lower.
E)
None of these.
Verbal 40 Questions
Time Allowed: 40 Minutes
Section 4: Reading Comprehension 10 Questions
What They Measure:
Reading involves two steps.
The first step is reading a passage of nonfiction prose, usually between 150 and
400 words long, which might deal with almost any subject from the natural
sciences, the social sciences, and the humanities. The second step is answering
a group of two to four questions dealing with the contents, form and style of
the passage.
Reading comprehension is
designed to measure your ability to handle the varies kinds of sophisticated
complex and subtle readings the graduate students are called upon to do.
To answer the questions, it
is not enough to understand the basic facts presented in the passage; you also
need to notice the more elusive implications in the passage as well as the form,
structure, and style of the passage (that is how the author has chosen to
present her ideas).
Directions:
Each passage is followed by questions based on its contents. After reading a
passage choose the best answer to each question. Answer all questions following
a passage on the basis.
Sample Questions:
Passage:
In the early years of the
twentieth century, astrophysicists turned their attention to a special category
of stars, known as Cepheid variables. A variable star is one whose apparent
brightness changes from time to time. Among some variables, the change in
brightness occurs so slowly as to be almost imperceptible; among others. It
occurs in sudden, brief, violent bursts of energy. Cepheid variables (which
take their name from the first such star was discovered) have special
characteristics that make them a useful astronomical tool. It was Henrietta
Leavitt, an astronomer at the Harvard Observatory, who first examined the
Cepheid variables in details. She found that these stars very regularly in
apparent brightness over a relatively short period of time from one to three
days to a month or more. This variation in brightness could be recorded and
precisely measured with the help of the camera, then still a new tool in
astronomy.
Leavitt also noticed that the
periodicity of each Cepheid variable that is the period of time it took for the
star to vary from its brightest point to its dimmest, and back to its brightest
again corresponded to the intrinsic or absolute brightness of the star. That is
the grater the star’s absolute brightness, the slower its cycle of variation.
Why is this so?
The variation in brightness is caused by the interaction between the star’s
gravity and the outward pressure exerted by the flow of light energy from the
star. Gravity pulls the outer proportions of the star inward, while light
pressure pushes them outward. The result is a pulsating in-and–out movement
that produces increasing and decreasing brightness. The stronger the light
pressure, the slower this pulsation. Therefore, the periodicity of the Cepheid
variable is a good indication of its absolute brightness. Furthermore, it is
obvious that the apparent brightness of any source of light decreases the
further we are from light. Physicists had long known that this relationship
could be described by a simple mathematical formula, known as the inverse square
law. If we know the absolute brightness of any object-say, a star as well as
our distance from that object, it is possible to use the inverse square law to
determine exactly how bright that object will appear to be. This laid the
background for Leavitt’s most crucial insight. As she had discovered, the
absolute brightness of a Cepheid variable could be determine by measuring its
periodicity. And, of course, the apparent brightness of the star when observed
from the earth could be determined by simple measurement. Leavitt saw that with
these two facts and the help of the inverse square law, it would be possible to
determine the distance from earth of any Cepheid variable. If we know the
absolute brightness of the star and how brightness of the star and how bright it
appears from the earth. We can tell how far it must be.
Thus, if a
Cepheid variable can be found in any galaxy, it is possible to measure the
distanced that galaxy from earth. Thanks to Leavitt’s discovery, astronomical
distances that could not previously be measured became measurable for the first
time.
Questions:
1. The primary
purpose of the passage is to explain
A)
The background and career of the astronomer Henrietta Leavitt
B)
How and why various categories of starts vary in brightness
C)
The development of the inverse square law for determining an object’s brightness
D)
Important uses of the camera as an astronomical distances
E)
How a particular method of measuring astronomical distances was created
2. According to the
passage, the absolute brightness of a Cepheid variable
A)
Depends upon its measurable distance from an observer on earth.
B)
May be determined from the length of its cycle of variation.
C)
Change from time to time according to a regular and predictable pattern.
D)
Indicate the strength of the gravitational force exerted by the star.
3. According to the
passage, Leavitt’s worked provided astronomers which of the following?
I.
The absolute brightness of any observable Cepheid variable.
I I. The apparent brightness of any object a given distance from an
observer.
III.
The distance from earth of any galaxy containing an observable Cepheid variable.
A)
I only
B)
III only
C)
I and II only
D)
I and III only
E)
I, II and III
only
4. It can be inferred
from the passage that a Cepheid variable of great absolute brightness would
exhibit.
A)
A relatively rapid variation in brightness
B)
A correspondingly weak gravitational force
C)
Brief, violent bursts of radiant energy
D)
Slow and almost imperceptible changes in brightness
E)
A strong outward flow of light pressure
5. The passage
implies that Leavitt’s work on Cepheid variable would not have been possible
without the availability of
A)
The camera as a scientific tool
B) Technique for determining the distances between stars
C) A method of measuring a star’s gravitational force
D) An understanding of the chemical properties of stars
E)
A single star whose distance from earth was already known
Answers: E, B, D, E,
A
Section 5: Vocabulary 15 Questions
What They Measure:
To answer an analogy
correctly, one need to know the meaning of the words in the stem pair and in the
answer choices. One also needs to understand the logical relationships between
words, and at times these can be subtle. So analogies measure both your
vocabulary knowledge and your understanding of logical relationships among
ideas.
Directions:
In each of the following
questions, a related pair or words or phrase is followed by five other pairs of
words or phrase. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to
that in the original pair.
Sample Questions:
1. Venison : Deer
A) Bison : Cattle B) Mutton :
Sheep
C) Mallard : Duck D) Antler :
Stag
Answer:
B
2. Mentor : Counsel
A) Poet : Criticism B) Plea : mercy
C) Bodyguard : Protection D) Sermon :
Conscience
Answer:
C
3. Nose : Smell
A) Hand : Arm B) Foot : Hit
C) Eye : Lid D) Teeth :
Chew
Answer:
D
4. Hillock : Mountain
A) hassock : stool B) pond : lake
C) spice : herb D)
gravel : sand
Answer:
B
5. Collage : Images
A) medley : songs B) book : volumes
C) survey : lands D) collection :
lists
Answer:
A
Section 6: Sentence Correction 15 Questions
What
They Are:
Sentence corrections “require
you to be familiar with the stylistic conventions and grammatical rules of
standard written English and to demonstrate your ability to improve or correct
ineffective expressions. You are given a sentence that may or may not contain a
grammatical mistake, a stylistic weakness, or another writing flaw. Your job is
to decide whether the sentence contains such a flaw and, if so, to pick one of
four alternatives that corrects the flaw without introducing any new flaw.
Sentence correction items are
intended to test both “correctness” and “effectiveness” of expression
“Correctness” refers to the degree to which a sentence obeys the rules of
English grammar and usage, including such specific principles as subject-verb
agreement, proper use of pronouns, correct constructions of verb tenses,
parallel sentence structure, and accurate use of idioms, “Effectiveness” is a
little more nebulous. An effective sentence is one that is clear and
unambiguous, reasonably graceful, and concise, without needless repetition or
wordiness.
Directions:
The following questions
present a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined beneath the
sentence you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of
these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the
original is the best, choose the first answer; otherwise choose one of the
others.
Sample Questions:
1. Scoliosis, a
condition when the spine curves abnormally and throws the body out of line,
can cause heart and lung problems as well as physical deformity.
A) a
condition when the spine curves abnormally and throws the body out of line
B)
an abnormal curvature of the spine that throws the body out of line
C) a
condition of the spine curving abnormally and in which the body is thrown out of
line
D)
where the body is thrown out of line by an abnormal curvature of the spine
E) a
condition of an abnormal curvature of the spine throwing the body out of line
2. Only in the
attempt to destroy them with completeness, the government soldiers have
launched a coordinated attack on rebel troops.
A) Balancing a
pizza with one hand and having gripped a six-pack carton of soft drinks with
another
B) Having a
balance of a pizza with one hand and gripping a six-pack of carton of soft
drinks with the other
C) Balancing a
pizza with one hand and gripping a pack of six soft drink carton with the other
D) Being
balanced a pizza with one hand and gripping a six-pack carton of soft drinks
with the another
E) Having
balanced a pizza with one hand and having gripped a six pack carton of soft
drinks with the other
3. To be creative,
one should try to think of new ideas that germinate faster in the loose soil
of soft thinking, which finds similarities and connections among different
things or situations.
A) that germinate faster in the loose soil of soft thinking
B) which germinates faster in the loose soil than soft thinking
C) which will germinate fastest in the lose soil of soft thinking
D) that faster germinates on the loose soil of soft thought
E) which must germinate faster in the lost soil of soft thinking
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